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Assume that \(\widehat{B}=\widehat{D}=30^0\). Draw \(AH\perp BC\). Let E be the point symmetric to A with respect to H.
\(\Delta AHB\) right at H has : \(\widehat{A_1}=90^0-30^0=60^0\)
The median BH of \(\Delta ABE\) is also the altitude, so \(\Delta ABH\) isosceles at B. Moreover, \(\widehat{A_1}=60^0\). Hence, \(\Delta ABH\) is equilateral
\(\Rightarrow AH=\dfrac{AE}{2}=\dfrac{AB}{2}=\dfrac{4}{2}=2\) (cm)
\(\Rightarrow S_{ABCD}=AH.BC=2.4=8\) (cm2)
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15 yards = 540 inches
The answer is : 540 : 20 = 27 (inches)
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I love class 7a 23/10/2017 at 16:00
We have: 15 yd = 540 inches
The answer is: 540 : 20 = 27 (inches)
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Let q and d be the number of quarter and dimes in the box respectively, then the total value of the money in the box is 25q + 10d cents. We have :
\(\left(1+10\%\right)\times25q+10d=\left(1+7.5\%\right)\left(25q+10d\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow110\%\times25q+10d=107.5\%\left(25q+10d\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow110\%\times25q-107.5\%\times25q=107.5\%\times10d-10d\)
\(\Leftrightarrow2.5\%\times25q=7.5\%\times10d\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{q}{d}=\dfrac{7.5\%\times10}{2.5\%\times25}=\dfrac{3\times2}{5}=\dfrac{6}{5}\)
So, the answer is \(\dfrac{6}{5}\)
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The exact number of weeks of Martian year each year is: \(668:7=95\dfrac{3}{7}\left(weeks\right)\)
So the fraction of the years are leap years is: \(95\dfrac{3}{7}-95=\dfrac{3}{7}\)
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1 + 4 + 16 + ... + 1024
= 20 + 22 + 24 + ... + 210
= 20 + 22 + 24 + 26 + 28 + 210
= 1 + 4 + 16 + 64 + 256 + 1024
= 1365
Lê Quốc Trần Anh selected this answer. -
¤« 11/03/2018 at 09:37
1 + 4 + 16 + ... + 1024
= 20 + 22 + 24 + ... + 210
= 20 + 22 + 24 + 26 + 28 + 210
= 1 + 4 + 16 + 64 + 256 + 1024
= 1365
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Nguyễn Mạnh Hùng 20/06/2018 at 08:43
Call two integers is a and b ( \(a,b\in Z\))
Because a and b have the same role, suppose a > b
So we have:
a - b = -18
a + b = 2
=> a = ( -18 + 2) / 2 = -8
=> b = -8 -2 = -10
So their product is: -8 x (-10) = 80
Lê Quốc Trần Anh selected this answer. -
Nguyễn Mạnh Hùng 20/06/2018 at 08:44
No, b just be: 2 - ( -8 ) = 10 and the product is -80, Oh :(
Lê Quốc Trần Anh Coordinator
24/07/2018 at 02:44
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Tôn Thất Khắc Trịnh 24/07/2018 at 13:11
The time for the express train: \(\dfrac{18}{72}=\dfrac{1}{4}\left(h\right)=15minutes\)
Lê Quốc Trần Anh selected this answer.
The time for the local train to travel (without the stops): \(\dfrac{18}{54}=\dfrac{1}{3}\left(h\right)=20minutes\)
And now counting the stops: \(20+6\cdot1.5=29\left(minutes\right)\)
So obviously, the local train takes \(29-15=14\left(minutes\right)\)more than the express train
Quoc Tran Anh Le Coordinator
06/08/2018 at 02:44
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Lê Anh Duy 07/08/2018 at 10:09
We can also put dot (.): 6.7